In contrast to department stores, specialty stores carry a narrow, but deep assortment of products and tailor strategy towards selective market segments.
In contrast to department stores, specialty stores carry a narrow, but deep assortment of products and tailor strategy towards selective market segments.
a. true
b. false
Q2. Off-price chains typically purchase their merchandise through traditional wholesale channels.
a. true
b. false
Q3. Which of these is a successful European store type that has not done well in the United States?
a. warehouse store
b. convenience store
c. superstore
d. hypermarket
Q4. Which of the following retail institutions does not fit into the definition of a supermarket?
a. conventional supermarket
b. warehouse store
c. superstore
d. convenience store
Q5. Manufacturers may prefer to sell their closeouts, canceled orders, and out-of-season merchandise to factory outlets rather than off-price chains because _____.
a. off-price chains can generate high profit margins
b. off-price chains have too much power
c. factory outlets generate low short-term cash flow
d. greater control results in less disturbance to traditional channels
Q6. The competitive advantage of a category killer is based on _____.
a. width of assortment
b. depth of assortment
c. low prices
d. convenience of location
Q7. A food-oriented retailer in which general merchandise accounts for 25 percent to 40 percent of total store sales is a _____.
a. superstore
b. combination store
c. box store
d. warehouse store
Q8. A high level of investment is needed to sustain growth during which retail life cycle stage?
a. decline
b. introduction
c. accelerated development
d. maturity
Q9. The high total sales volume from off-price chains, factory outlets, membership clubs, and flea markets can be explained by _____.
a. the retail life cycle
b. scrambled merchandising
c. retail downsizing
d. the wheel of retailing
Q10. A significant factor in the growth of factory outlets is the _____.
a. ability of outlets to purchase merchandise for cash
b. success of wholesale sales
c. success of catalog sales
d. desire/need for manufacturer control where discounted merchandise is to be sold
Q11. High channel control is associated with the use of factory outlets as retail channels.
a. true
b. false
Q12. A narrow but deep product assortment characterizes _____.
a. department stores
b. specialty stores
c. variety stores
d. retail catalog showrooms
Q13. The retail life cycle stage corresponding to a retail innovator first becoming vulnerable to new discount retailers with a lower cost structure is _____.
a. introduction
b. decline
c. accelerated development
d. maturity
Q14. Increases in the number of working women have negatively affected direct sellers from the perspective of supply of workers and the presence of females in the home during working hours.
a. true
b. false
Q15. Lack of privacy, fear of credit card security, and inability to examine merchandise prior to purchase are major impediments to Web-based sales.
a. true
b. false
Q16. A direct marketer that seeks to reduce its inventory investment and risk through purchasing its goods after they are paid for by consumers needs to be concerned with _____.
a. the wheel of retailing
b. the four rights of consumers
c. employee empowerment
d. the 30-day rule
Q17. The Web is the least effective medium in reaching what type of customer?
a. the elderly
b. the affluent
c. college graduates
d. professionals
Q18. U.S. vending machine sales are largely confined to cigarettes and candies.
a. true
b. false
Q19. The characteristics of Web users can be most accurately summarized as being _____.
a. empty nesters
b. upscale
c. time-pressed
d. newly married
Q20. Duty-free shopping is an important component to airport retailing where global flights exits.
a. true
b. false
Q21. Air travelers are captive audiences for a temporary time period.
a. true
b. false
Q22. The differences between a basic information Web site and a full-scale, integrated Web selling site are huge.
a. true
b. false
Q23. A current customer data base can be the most valuable asset to a direct marketer.
a. true
b. false
Q24. Which of the following is not an example of a recent vending machine-related innovation?
a. electronic coin-handling mechanisms
b. microprocessors that track consumer preferences and trace malfunctions
c. voice synthesizers
d. theft-resistant vending machines
Q25. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an infomercial?
a. a duration of under 5 minutes
b. a program-length commercial
c. use of fringe times
d. use of cable or broadcast television
Q26. A bricks-and-mortar retailer questions whether it should also sell goods through the Web as part of a dual distribution channel strategy. What step is involved in the retailer’s direct marketing strategy?
a. order fulfillment
b. customer contact
c. customer response
d. business definition
Q27. The element of perceived risk that relates to how friends and relatives view the purchase of a good or service is _____ risk.
a. social
b. physical
c. performance
d. psychological
Q28. The information search process can involve the use of commercial, noncommercial, and social sources.
a. true
b. false
Q29. Further purchase and re-evaluation are components of which stage in the consumer decision process?
a. information search
b. evaluation of alternatives
c. purchase act
d. post-purchase behavior
Q30. Which form of perceived risk most closely resembles class consciousness?
a. social risk
b. performance risk
c. time risk
d. financial risk
Q31. The decision process is always used consciously by consumers.
a. true
b. false
Q32. Money left after paying taxes and buying necessities is referred to as _____.
a. GDP per capita
b. taxable income
c. discretionary income
d. disposable income
Q33. Expensive, complex goods or services with which consumers have had little or no experience generally involve _____.
a. impulse purchases
b. extended decision making
c. limited decision making
d. routine decision making
Q34. The average annual U.S. household after-tax income is about _____.
a. $10,000
b. $15,000
c. $30,000
d. $45,000
Q35. The process whereby individuals decide whether, what, when, where, how, and from whom to purchase goods and services is _____.
a. commercial search
b. consumer behavior
c. marketing research
d. outshopping
Q36. Money-back guarantees and honest sales and advertising presentations aid in _____.
a. minimizing cognitive dissonance
b. AIO measurement
c. the problem awareness stage of consumer behavior
d. studying psychographics
Q37. Which consumer lifestyle grouping includes family and nonfamily household members?
a. component lifestyle
b. family life cycle
c. reference group influence
d. household life cycle
Q38. Retailers desiring to minimize consumer cognitive dissonance should focus on consumer after-purchase service and on realistic selling presentations and advertising campaigns.
a. true
b. false
Q39. Which type of consumer behavior topic can be best studied using observation?
a. the store image of a new discounter
b. perceived risk related to sneaker purchasing behavior
c. consumer cognitive dissonance subsequent to the purchase of a new home
d. the average time spent in a convenience store
Q40. In a survey, _____.
a. information is systematically gathered from respondents by communicating with them
b. the respondent is always told the real purpose of the study
c. past behavior is observed and recorded
d. a computer manipulates retailing factors on paper
Q41. A respondent is always told the real purpose of the study in _____.
a. a mail survey
b. an experiment
c. observation
d. a nondisguised survey
Q42. In an experiment, only the factor under investigation is manipulated; all other factors remain constant.
a. true
b. false
Q43. The stages in the marketing research process must be done sequentially.
a. true
b. false
Q44. Vendors can communicate shipping information with retailers through electronic data interchange (EDI).
a. true
b. false
Q45. The procedure to gather, integrate, apply, and store information related to specific subject areas is _____.
a. a retail information system
b. data-base management
c. marketing research
d. data storage
Q46. In a probability sample, _____.
a. every unit has an equal or known chance of being chosen for study
b. every unit studied is chosen by the researcher based on judgment or convenience
c. data are selected for use by the researcher based on their relevance
d. data cannot be extrapolated due to unknown sampling error
Q47. A researcher notes the percentage of shoppers who pass by and who purchase detergents in a supermarket. The researcher is utilizing _____.
a. a personal survey
b. contrived observation
c. structured observation
d. mechanical observation
Q48. The use of point-of-sale cash register-based data in conducting a study of fast-selling merchandise illustrates _____.
a. external secondary data
b. internal secondary data
c. an experiment
d. observation
Q49. Primary data may be developed through surveys, experiments, observation, and simulation.
a. true
b. false
Q50. Information previously gathered for other purposes than the problem or issue under study is _____.
a. primary data
b. syndicated data
c. secondary data
d. a marketing research system